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This client’s first OAT showed high oxalic (#21) and within range glyceric (#19). A retest 6 months later shows oxalic marker within range but glyceric is high. How can that be? Isn’t the glyceric indicating genetic hyperoxaluria type II? Why wouldn’t it have been high the 1st time if it’s genetic? if so, wouldn’t the oxalic marker be out of range too? If the glyceric is high, would we assume oxalates are high no matter if oxalic marker is high?
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